OPSC OAS Test Series 2026 | Prelims & Mains | Odisha Civil Services

19-08-2026 (Static)

10 Questions 10 Minutes 20 Marks +2 Correct -0.66 Wrong
10:00
Question 1

With reference to the use of Dehalococcoides mccartyi in the bioremediation of chlorinated solvents, consider the following statements:

  1. It can completely detoxify vinyl chloride into ethene.
  2. It uses hydrogen as an electron donor and acetate as a carbon source.
  3. It is an obligately aerobic bacterium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding Pseudomonas putida:

  1. It has considerable metabolic diversity and can degrade several organic pollutants.
  2. Certain strains can detoxify mercury through genes associated with the mer operon.
  3. It was used in the development of a genetically engineered microorganism capable of degrading multiple hydrocarbons in crude oil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Question 3

With reference to activated carbon in environmental remediation, consider the following statements:

  1. It is widely used to remove pollutants from water and air.
  2. Its high porosity provides a very large surface area for adsorption.
  3. In adsorption, contaminants primarily adhere to the surface of the activated carbon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Question 4

Which of the following can act as major pollutants of soil?

  1. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs)
  2. Lead and mercury
  3. Pathogens introduced through sewage sludge

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding radioactive pollution:

  1. Radon is a naturally occurring radioactive gas produced during the decay of uranium in rocks and soil.
  2. Gamma radiation has greater penetrating power than alpha and beta radiation.
  3. Ionizing radiation can damage DNA and increase the risk of cancer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding Article 3 of the Indian Constitution:

  1. Parliament can alter the area, boundaries or names of existing States.
  2. The views of the concerned State Legislature are binding on Parliament.
  3. The President must refer the Bill to the concerned State Legislature before its introduction in Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of the Indian Constitution:

  1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
  2. Certain amendments require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
  3. The President has the power to withhold assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill duly passed under Article 368.
  4. Parliament's power to amend the Constitution is subject to the Basic Structure Doctrine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Question 8

With reference to the separation of powers in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Indian Constitution does not provide for a complete separation of powers.
  2. The parliamentary system creates an overlap between the executive and legislature.
  3. Judicial review enables the judiciary to check unconstitutional legislative and executive actions.
  4. Article 50 directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Question 9

The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares that fraternity assures:

Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Education under the Indian Constitution:

  1. Article 21A was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
  2. It guarantees free and compulsory education to children between 6 and 14 years of age.
  3. Article 21A expressly makes the Right to Education subject to reasonable restrictions on grounds of public order and morality.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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